640-553 Exam
IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security

Exam Number/Code : 640-553
Exam Name : IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security

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Exam : Cisco 640-553
Title : IINS Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the option secret 5 in the username global configuration mode command indicate about the enable secret password?
A. It is hashed using SHA.
B. It is encrypted using DH group 5.
C. It is hashed using MD5.
D. It is encrypted via the service password-encryption command.
E. It is hashed using a proprietary Cisco hashing algorithm.
F. It is encrypted using a proprietary Cisco encryption algorithm.
Answer: C

2. What are two characteristics of the SDM Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.)
A. displays a screen with Fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-related configuration changes to implement
B. has two modes of operationinteractive and non-interactive
C. automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and Cisco IOS IPS to secure the router
D. uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement role-based CLI
E. requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to the outside network
Answer: AE

3. Which of these correctly matches the CLI command(s) to the equivalent SDM wizard that performs similar configuration functions?
A. Cisco Common Classification Policy Language configuration commands and the SDM Site-to-Site VPN wizard
B. auto secure exec command and the SDM One-Step Lockdown wizard
C. setup exec command and the SDM Security Audit wizard
D. class-maps, policy-maps, and service-policy configuration commands and the SDM IPS wizard
E. aaa configuration commands and the SDM Basic Firewall wizard
Answer: B

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct based on the show login command output shown?
A. When the router goes into quiet mode, any host is permitted to access the router via Telnet, SSH, and HTTP, since the quiet-mode access list has not been configured.
B. The login block-for command is configured to block login hosts for 93 seconds.
C. All logins from any sources are blocked for another 193 seconds.
D. Three or more login requests have failed within the last 100 seconds.
Answer: D

5. What will be disabled as a result of the no service password-recovery command?
A. changes to the config-register setting
B. ROMMON
C. password encryption service
D. aaa new-model global configuration command
E. the xmodem privilege EXEC mode command to recover the Cisco IOS image
Answer: B

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352-001 Exam
ADVDESIGN

Exam Number/Code : 352-001
Exam Name : ADVDESIGN

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Exam : Cisco 352-001
Title : ADVDESIGN

1. NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

2. Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

3. What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

4. The TIS company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

5. What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

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350-030 Exam
CCIE Voice Written

Exam Number/Code : 350-030
Exam Name : CCIE Voice Written

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Exam : Cisco 350-030
Title : CCIE Voice Exam

1. There are 2 remote sites and one main site. Each site has a CME router with many IP phones in an IPT deployment. The Network Administrator wants to provide all of the phones voicemail access using CUE. Which way can CUE be deployed?
A. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site must be collocated in the same router chassis providing voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
B. One Cisco Unity Express can be used at the main site with CME router providing voicemail access to all the 3 sites.
C. One Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at the main site to provide voicemail access to the IP phones at the main site. Another Cisco Unity Express with CME can be used at one of the remote sites to provide voicemail access for all of the IP phones at the two remote sites.
D. Cisco Unity Express and the CME gateway at each site may NOT be collocated in the same router chassis providing a voicemail access to local IP phones registered to local CME.
Answer: A

2. A CallManager Group can provide which two features to your call processing system? (Choose 2)
A. Support for SRST in remote offices
B. Enables you to distribute the control of devices across multiple Cisco CallManagers
C. Enables you to distribute voice mail support across multiple Unity servers
D. Support for redundancy by enabling you to designate a primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
E. Support for control of IPMA across primary and backup Cisco CallManagers for each group
Answer: BD

3. Which of the following statements outline the way to implement a non-standard softkey template?
A. Select a softkey template; copy the template and rename it; insert it; modify the template and update the changes.
B. Select a softkey template; rename it; modify it and update the changes.
C. Select the default softkey template, rename it; insert it; modify it and update the changes.
D. Select add softkey template, name it; update it; modify the template and update the changes.
Answer: A

4. Which of the following are NOT true statements about Certificate Trust List (CTL) File? (Choose 2)
A. It is a list of devices and credentials that a phone should trust on the network.
B. The CTL file is signed by administrator workstation password.
C. It contains identity, public key and role information.
D. Phones need to trust all entries in the CTL file which could be CCM, TFTP, CAPF, etc.
E. The CTL file is loaded to the phone each time when authentication is required.
F. The CTL is created by CTL Client on administrator workstation.
Answer: BE

5. Which port(s) must be opened on an IOS firewall to allow successful MGCP (Media Gateway Control Protocol) message exchanges between a CallManager and an IOS MGCP PRI gateway?
A. TCP 2000 and TCP 2002
B. TCP 2427 and UDP 2428
C. UDP 2427
D. UDP 2427 and UDP 2428
E. UDP 2427 and TCP 2428
Answer: E

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350-029 Exam
CCIE SP Written Exam

Exam Number/Code : 350-029
Exam Name : CCIE SP Written Exam

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Exam : Cisco 350-029
Title : CCIE Service Provider Written Exam

1. BGP best route selection process is based on what?
A. lowest cost
B. highest bandwidth
C. lowest hop-count
D. path attributes
E. lowest delay
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth
Answer: D

2. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process
C. The network command within the BGP routing process
D. The set command within a route-map
E. The send-community command within a route-map
Answer: D

3. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?
A. additive
B. none
C. no-export
D. no-advertise
E. local-as
Answer: D

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.
Answer: D

5. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?
A. AF Class
B. Drop Probability
C. CS (Class Selector Value)
D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)
E. IP Precedence
F. Queue Depth
Answer: B

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350-018 Exam
CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security

Exam Number/Code : 350-018
Exam Name : CCIE Pre-Qualification Test for Security

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Exam : Cisco 350-018
Title : CCIE Security Qualification Exam

1. When initiating a new SSL/TLS session, the client receives the server SSL certificate and validates it. What does the client use the certificate for after validating it?
A. The client and server use the key in the certificate to encrypt all data in the following SSL session.
B. The server creates a separate session key and sends it to the client. The client has to decrypt the session key using the server public key from the certificate.
C. The client creates a separate session key and encrypts it with the server public key from the certificate before sending it to the server.
D. Nothing, the client and server switch to symmetric encryption using IKE to exchange keys.
E. The client generates a random string, encrypts it with the server public key from the certificate, and sends it to the server. Both the client and server derive the session key from the random data sent by the client.
Answer: E

2. Which two of the following statements describe why TACACS+ is more desirable from a security standpoint than RADIUS? (Choose two.)
A. It uses UDP as its transport.
B. It uses TCP as its transport.
C. It encrypts the password field with a unique key between server and requester.
D. Encrypting the whole data payload is optional.
E. Authentication and authorization are combined into a single query for robustness.
Answer: BD

3. Which three of these statements describe how DNSSEC prevents DNS cache poisoning attacks from succeeding? (Choose three.)
A. DNSSEC encrypts all records with domain-specific keys.
B. DNSSEC eliminates caching and forces all answers to be authoritative.
C. DNSSEC introduces KEY records that hold domain-specific public keys.
D. DNSSEC deprecates CNAME records and replaces them with DS records.
E. DNSSEC utilizes DS records to establish a trusted hierarchy of zones.
F. DNSSEC signs all records with domain-specific keys.
Answer: CEF

4. When using Cisco SDM to manage a Cisco IOS device, what configuration statements are necessary to be able to use Cisco SDM?
A. ip http server
B. ip http secure-server
C. ip http server
sdm location X.X.X.X
D. ip http secure-server
sdm location X.X.X.X
E. ip http server
ip http secure-server
Answer: A

5. In regards to private address space, which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Private address space is defined in RFC 1918.
B. These IP addresses are considered private:
10.0.0.0
172.15.0.0
192.168.0.0
C. Private address space is not supposed to be routed over the Internet.
D. 127.0.0.1 is also considered part of private address space, according to the RFC.
E. Using only private address space and NAT to the Internet is not considered as secure as having a stateful firewall.
Answer: ACE

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350-001GB2312-LAB Exam
CCIE-Routing and Switching Written exam

Exam Number/Code : 350-001GB2312-LAB
Exam Name : CCIE-Routing and Switching Written exam

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350-001-LAB Exam
CCIE-ROUTING AND SWITCHING QUALIFICATION (Lab exam)

Exam Number/Code : 350-001-LAB
Exam Name : CCIE-ROUTING AND SWITCHING QUALIFICATION (Lab exam)

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350-001 Exam
CCIE Cisco Certified Internetworking Expert

Exam Number/Code : 350-001
Exam Name : CCIE Cisco Certified Internetworking Expert

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Exam : Cisco 350-001
Title : CCIE-Routing and Switching Written exam (4.1)

1. Which statement correctly describes the disabling of IP TTL propagation in an MPLS network?
A. The TTL field from the IP packet is copied into the TTL field of the MPLS label header at the ingress edge LSR.
B. TTL propagation cannot be disabled in an MPLS domain.
C. TTL propagation is only disabled on the ingress edge LSR.
D. The TTL field of the MPLS label header is set to 255.
E. The TTL field of the IP packet is set to 0.
Answer: D

2. Which of these is mandatory when configuring Cisco IOS Firewall?
A. Cisco IOS IPS enabled on the untrusted interface
B. NBAR enabled to perform protocol discovery and deep packet inspection
C. a route map to define the trusted outgoing traffic
D. a route map to define the application inspection rules
E. an inbound extended ACL applied to the untrusted interface
Answer: E

3. Two routers configured to run BGP have been connected to a firewall, one on the inside interface and one on the outside interface. BGP has been configured so the two routers should peer, including the correct BGP session endpoint addresses and the correct BGP session hop-count limit (EBGP multihop). What is a good first test to see if BGP will work across the firewall?
A. Attempt to TELNET from the router connected to the inside of the firewall to the router connected to the outside of the firewall. If telnet works, BGP will work, since telnet and BGP both use TCP to transport data.
B. Ping from the router connected to the inside interface of the firewall to the router connected to the outside interface of the firewall. If you can ping between them, BGP should work, since BGP uses IP to transport packets.
C. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall without special configuration, so there is no simple test that will show you if BGP will work or not, other than trying to start the peering session.
D. There is no way to make BGP work across a firewall.
Answer: A

4. What is the purpose of an explicit "deny any" statement at the end of an ACL?
A. none, since it is implicit
B. to enable Cisco IOS IPS to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
C. to enable Cisco IOS Firewall to work properly; however, it is the deny all traffic entry that is actually required
D. to allow the log option to be used to log any matches
E. to prevent sync flood attacks
F. to prevent half-opened TCP connections
Answer: D

5. Spanning Tree Protocol IEEE 802.1s defines the ability to deploy which of these?
A. one global STP instance for all VLANs
B. one STP instance for each VLAN
C. one STP instance per set of VLANs
D. one STP instance per set of bridges
Answer: C

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9A0-802 Exam
Certified Macromedia Dreamweaver MX 2004 Developer Exam

Exam Number/Code : 9A0-802
Exam Name : Certified Macromedia Dreamweaver MX 2004 Developer

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Exam : Adobe 9A0-802
Title : Certified Macromedia Dreamweaver MX 2004 Developer Exam

1. What three tags are associated with a Definition List?
A. dl, dt, li
B. dl, dd, li
C. dl, dt, dd
D. dl, dt, db
Answer: C

2. What is used to apply a class style to selected text? (Choose TWO)
A. Insert bar
B. Style panel
C. Assets panel
D. CSS Styles panel
E. Property inspector
Answer: DE

3. The left frame of a frameset has the name of "nav" and the right frame of a frameset has the name of "main". The links in the "nav" frame need to display pages in the "main" frame. What is the target for the link?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer: C

4. A page has an embedded style sheet that redefines H3 as Arial, red. The same page has a linked style sheet attached that defines H3 as Verdana, blue, and 16 pixels. How should text between H3 tags display on the page in a browser?
A. Arial, red, 16 pixels
B. Verdana, red, 16 pixels
C. Verdana, blue, 16 pixels
D. Arial, red, browser default font size
Answer: A

5. What actions can be performed when multiple, NON-consecutive, cells are selected? (Choose TWO)
A. Split cells
B. Delete row
C. Merge cells
D. Adjust font face
E. Adjust background color
Answer: DE

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9A0-042 Exam
Acrobat 7.0 Prowith Adobe LiveCycle Designer ACE Exam

Exam Number/Code : 9A0-042
Exam Name : Acrobat 7.0 Prowith Adobe LiveCycle Designer ACE Exam

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Exam : Adobe 9A0-042
Title : Acrobat 7.0 Pro with Adobe LiveCycle Designer ACE Exam

1. Which statement about using the Manage Security Policies dialog box is true?
A. You can view and edit your list of trusted identities.
B. You can modify the appearance of digital signatures.
C. You can create a new security policy but cannot apply one.
D. You must have a PDF document open in order to manage policies.
Answer: C

2. You are applying password security to a PDF document. Which setting prevents search engines from accessing information such as author and keywords?
A. Encrypt all document contents
B. Enable copying of text, images, and other content
C. Enable text access for screen reader devices for the visually impaired
D. Encrypt all document contents except metadata (Acrobat 6 and later compatible)
Answer: A

3. Your company is providing organizational security policies via an Adobe LiveCycle Policy Server. Which should you choose to configure Acrobat to access the Adobe LiveCycle Policy Server?
A. Advanced > Security Settings
B. Advanced > Trusted Identities
C. Document > Security > Synchronize for Offline
D. Document > Security > Use APS Web Console
Answer: A

4. You want to encrypt a PDF document for a specific group of users. You do NOT set permissions for some of the users. What happens when those users attempt to open the PDF document?
A. They will have full access.
B. They will be unable to open the document.
C. They will be able to open the document, but will be unable to print, comment or extract.
D. They will have permissions equal to the most stringent permissions set for the user list.
Answer: A

5. What is the purpose of the permissions password in a PDF document?
A. It unlocks the document for viewing.
B. It sets the document so that it can be printed.
C. It ensures that the file is accessible to the visually impaired.
D. It enables a user with the password to reset the permissions in a protected file.
Answer: D

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9A0-029 Exam
Adobe Framemaker 7.0 Product Proficiency Exam

Exam Number/Code : 9A0-029
Exam Name : Adobe Framemaker 7.0 Product Proficiency Exam

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Exam : Adobe 9A0-029
Title : Adobe Framemaker 7.0 Product Proficiency Exam


1. How many read/write rules documents can be referenced in a single structured FrameMaker application?
A. one, as a child of the SGMLApplication element or XMLApplication element
B. none, since read/write rules are not referenced in structured FrameMaker applications
C. an unlimited number as long as each one is a reference to a different read/write rules document
D. an unlimited number as long as each one is in referenced with a separate ReadWriteRules element
Answer: A

2. Which part of the structured FrameMaker application controls how long SGML and FrameMaker element names can be by default?
A. EDD
B. DTD
C. SGML declaration file
D. CSS formatting sheet
Answer: C

3. In the application definition file, what is the first required child element needed in the SGML or XML application?
A. Doctype
B. Template
C. ReadWriteRules
D. ApplicationName
Answer: D

4. Which is necessary to create new data and markup text that will be inserted into an XML or SGML document when a structured FrameMaker document is exported?
A. a read/write rule file
B. an SGML or XML application
C. a special version of FrameMaker
D. an API client created with the FDK
Answer: D

5. Which command should you use to update the EDD of a structured FrameMaker document with a DTD?
A. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > New EDD
B. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Open DTD
C. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Import DTD
D. while the EDD is open, choose File > Structure Tools > Save As DTD
Answer: C


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Exam : Adobe 9A0-901
Title : Flash Lite 1.1 Mobile Developer Certification Exam

1. What is the value of myVar in the following command?
myVar =_capCompoundSound
A.1 if Flash Lite can process compound sound, 0 if it cannot
B.1 if Flash Lite can process compound sound, undefined if it cannot
C.depends on the number of sounds the device can play simultaneously
D.depends on the number of sounds the installed version of Flash Lite can play simultaneously
Answer: B

2. What results from the following commands?
A.test1.swf is placed on top of test2.swf
B.test2.swf is placed on top of test1.swf
C.test1.swf and test2.swf exist on the same level
D.test1.swf is replaced with test2.swf on the same depth
E.the second loadMovieNum returns a compile time error
Answer: B

3. What is the likely cause of a Flash Lite error 3 - "corrupt SWF data" when attempting to load sample.swf using loadMovieNum?
A.The SWF file contains Flash 4 fscommands
B.The SWF file was published with Flash 4 settings
C.The SWF file was published as Flash Lite 1.1 content
D.Optimize Flash Lite 1.1 in the Publish settings was used
E.The SWF file was published with Flash 5 or greater settings
F.The SWF file loaded was published as Flash Lite 1.0 content
G.Images cannot be embedded in movies loaded with loadmovienum or loadmovie commands
Answer: E

4. When writing code for a "Key Catcher" button, what code snippet would listen for the right-hand soft key on the handset?
A.on(keyPress "") { }
B.on(keyPress "") { }
C.on(keyPress "") { }
D.on(keyPress "") { }
Answer: D

5. Given the pictured device, what labeled keys are unavailable for access from Flash Lite 1.1 content?
A.F, D, E
B.A, C, B
C.E, B, A
D.A, D, E
E.B, F, E
Answer: A

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